It’s by definition discriminatory because it’s a statement of discrimination no one said anything about it being abusive. It’s not just not necessarily derogatory whereas mansplaining always is.
What even is your argument at this point because at the moment you’re hedging more and more every statement.
Just so we’re clear, you believe that using the term “misogyny” is discriminatory or abusive behavior towards members of the opposite sex?
It’s by definition discriminatory because it’s a statement of discrimination no one said anything about it being abusive. It’s not just not necessarily derogatory whereas mansplaining always is.
What even is your argument at this point because at the moment you’re hedging more and more every statement.