Literally any academic paper on the matter where they use it as a descriptor, or I dunno the dictionary examples I’ve already provided that use it again as a descriptor. The reader adds bias, no one can help that but the insult isn’t intended.
Misogyny has been widely practised for thousands of years. It is reflected in art, literature, human societal structure, historical events, mythology, philosophy, and religion worldwide.
These comments attempt to cut much deeper, striking women at what misogynists see as their most valuable characteristics: appearance, sexual purity, sweetness and submissiveness.
That scrutiny intensified in March, when a university task force released a report that called out the clubs for fostering a misogynistic culture that contributed to the problem of sexual assault.
In all cases there is no explicit insult it’s left to context and the readers perception.
Can you do the same with mansplaining? I’d say no.
I’m not comfortable using it, that’s my whole goddamn point. Do you really think that was a gotcha? I’ve been talking about how it’s not possible to use it without it being an insult, it is by definition insulting. It’s the same thing as dropping the hard r. I can use it as an example or in a quote during a discussion and still find it reprehensible because it’s never not insulting and it’s certainly not the same as using it in the context of is intended for.
Is your argument so bad you had to resort to this weird gotcha attempt?
Can you think of an example?
An example of what using the phrase misogynistic without it being derogatory or your weird little setup?
My entire point is you cannot use mansplaining without it being an insult thusly it’s a sexist slur.
Yes.
Literally any academic paper on the matter where they use it as a descriptor, or I dunno the dictionary examples I’ve already provided that use it again as a descriptor. The reader adds bias, no one can help that but the insult isn’t intended.
In all cases there is no explicit insult it’s left to context and the readers perception.
Can you do the same with mansplaining? I’d say no.
Literally the usage in this quoted text. Unless you’re saying that you’re bigoted for using it in that context.
You don’t think I in intended the term to be an insult in that context? I’d say you’re wrong and you haven’t been listening.
So then you just need to look inward to see why you’re comfortable using a word that makes you bigoted, and you’ll have your answer.
I’m not comfortable using it, that’s my whole goddamn point. Do you really think that was a gotcha? I’ve been talking about how it’s not possible to use it without it being an insult, it is by definition insulting. It’s the same thing as dropping the hard r. I can use it as an example or in a quote during a discussion and still find it reprehensible because it’s never not insulting and it’s certainly not the same as using it in the context of is intended for.
Is your argument so bad you had to resort to this weird gotcha attempt?
I mean, you’ve used it soooo many times in this exchange now. You must be a mega-bigot by this point.
How can you even live with yourself?