Interesting. This doesn’t seem to be a established concept within political science, or at least, it’s the first I’ve heard of it. Why?

Anyway, economic power doesn’t necessarily translate into political power but then again, maybe so in the US. However, the US has passed plenty of policies reducing profit margins for the rich, so it seems like this does not hold true?

I don’t consider Marxism or Lenin radical and have read some, but thank you!