Okay, and? Because he died more than 20 years before the Revolution. Does that mean that Lenin was somehow not aware of him or the ideas he put forth? And came up with identical concepts on his own? How is this supposed to work, or what are you implying?
I understand why Lenin, but not why Marx and Engels.
Engles directly informed Lenin’s authoritarian oppression. How can one belong there and not the other? Marx definitely doesn’t belong.
Engels died in 1895, more than 20 years before the russian revolutions in 1917.
Okay, and? Because he died more than 20 years before the Revolution. Does that mean that Lenin was somehow not aware of him or the ideas he put forth? And came up with identical concepts on his own? How is this supposed to work, or what are you implying?
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