France is to enshrine in law the end of so-called “conjugal rights” – the notion that marriage means a duty to have sex.
A bill approved on Wednesday in the National Assembly adds a clause to the country’s civil code to make clear that “community of living” does not create an “obligation for sexual relations”.
The proposed law also makes it impossible to use lack of sexual relations as an argument in fault-based divorce.
Though unlikely to have a major impact in the courts, supporters hope the law will help deter marital rape.
What if one partner wants a divorce because the other partner was having sex with other people due to there being no sex within the marriage?
I can see not being able to divorce someone (at fault or whatever it’s called) just because they don’t want to have sex, but would they then be able to divorce you (at fault) if you seek it elsewhere and are open about it?
Just curious as it would be an interesting situation.